1. Which edition of Windows includes DirectAccess and BranchCache?

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Exam 1

1. Which edition of Windows includes DirectAccess and BranchCache?

A. Windows 7 Enterprise

B. Windows 7 Professional

C. Windows 7 Home Basic

D. Windows 7 Home Premium

Answer: A

Windows 7 Enterprise is targeted for managed environments, mainly large enterprises. It includes all features that Windows 7 offers, including BitLocker, BitLocker To Go, AppLocker, DirectAccess, and BranchCache.

2. How much memory does a 32-bit version of Windows 7 support?

A. 1 GB

B. 2 GB

C. 4 GB

D. 8 GB

Answer: C

A 32-bit version of Windows is based on a 32-bit address bus, which can use up to 4 GB of memory.

3. Which of the following does NOT include Aero?

A. Windows 7 Home Premium

B. Windows 7 Professional

C. Windows 7 Home Basic

D. Windows 7 Enterprise

Answer: C

Aero is not included in Windows 7 Home Basic or Windows 7 Starter.

4. What is the minimum processor that you need to install Windows 7 Home Basic, 32 bit?

A. 800 MHz

B. 1 GHz

C. 1.2 GHz

D. 2.0 GHz

Answer: B

To install Windows 7 Home Basic, you need to have a 1 GHz processor. However, a faster processor gives you better performance.

5. What do you call a minimal 32-bit or 64-bit version of Windows 7 that you can use in a DVD to install or repair the Windows operating system?

A. Windows PE

B. Windows Basic

C. Windows Min

D. Windows Bare

Answer: A

Windows PE is a minimum 32-bit or 64-bit operating system with limited services built on the Windows 7 kernel. It can be used to install and repair Windows and can be useful if your system does not boot.

6. What tool is used to determine if your computer can run Windows 7?

A. Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor

B. Program Compatibility Troubleshooter

C. Application Compatibility Toolkit

D. Application Compatibility Manager

Answer: A

If you are not sure if your system is ready to run Windows 7, you can use the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor, which can be downloaded from the Microsoft website.

7. Where do you find the previous operating system, user data, and programs if you install Windows 7 on a hard disk volume that contains an existing Windows installation?

A. C:\Windows\Backup

B. C:\Windows\System32\Archive

C. C:\Windows.OLD

D. C:\Windows.BAK

Answer: C

When you perform a clean installation of Windows 7 on a volume that contains an existing Windows installation, assuming you did not reformat the volume, the previous operating system, user data, and program files are saved to the Windows.OLD folder.

8. If you cannot do an in-place upgrade, which of the following tools can assist you in migrating your data files and settings from one Windows installation to another?

A. Migration toolkit

B. Windows PE

C. Internet Explorer


Answer: D

Windows Easy Transfer (WET) and User State Migration Tool (USMT) can help you migrate data files and settings between Windows installations.

9. Windows 7 includes several tools to migrate user settings between Windows installations. Which of these tools is a command-line tool that provides this functionality?



C. Windows Explorer

D. Magic Migrate

Answer: A

While the Windows Easy Transfer program is a graphical program, the User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a scriptable command-line tool that is highly customizable. Because it a scriptable command-line tool, it is usually used to automate migration during large deployments of the Windows 7 operating system.

10. What can you use to automate the installation of Windows 7 using the Microsoft Windows 7 DVD?

A. Create an answer file named autounattend.xml and copy it to a USB drive.

B. Create an answer file called winnt.sif file and copy it to the USB drive.

C. Create an answer file and copy it to the C:\ folder.

D. Create an answer file and copy it to the system BIOS.

Answer: A

To perform an automated installation of Windows 7, the installation process automatically looks for the autounattend.xml file on the DVD or USB drive.

11. Which option used with the sysprep command restarts the computer in Windows Welcome mode, enabling you to customize the Windows operating system, create user accounts, and name the computer?

A. /generalize

B. /oobe

C. /reboot

D. /quiet

Answer: B

The /oobe option, short for out-of-box experience, restarts the computer in Windows Welcome mode, which enables end users to customize the Windows operating system.

12. What script do you use to create an image of a Windows 7 computer on multiple CDs?

A. Span.cmd

B. WinPE.cmd

C. AIK.cmd

D. Createspannedshares.cmd

Answer: D

If you have an older system that does not have DVD drives, but does have CD-ROM drives, you can use the createspannedshares.cmd script to create spanned media, which then breaks the DVD into multiple CDs. The createspannedshares.cmd is part of the Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK).

13. What is the primary tool to manage and configure Windows 7?

A. Registry Editor

B. Windows Explorer

C. Control panel

D. Computer Management console

Answer: C

The primary program to configure Windows is the Control Panel. You can change the name of the computer, modify user profiles, create users and groups, change the display settings, change the power settings, and many other options.

14. Where do you enable IIS in Windows 7?

A. Registry Editor

B. Windows Explorer

C. Programs in the Control Panel

D. Computer Management console

Answer: C

You can enable and disable Windows features by clicking Programs in the Control Panel and then clicking Turn Windows features on or off.

15. What type of device enables you to connect it to Windows 7 and then automatically configure itself for use?

A. Free device

B. Plug and play device

C. PCI device

D. Signed device

Answer: B

Plug and play refers to the capability of a computer system to automatically configure expansion boards and other devices. You should be able to plug in a device and play with it without worrying about setting DIP switches, jumpers, and other configuration elements.

16. What tool do you use to disable a device?

A. Windows Explorer

B. Regedit

C. Add/Remove Drivers

D. Device Manager

Answer: D

To disable a driver, you open Device Manager. You can then either right-click the device to disable it or open the properties of the device to disable it.

17. What is a combination of pictures, colors, and sounds on your computer that describes your desktop look and feel?

A. Windows Scheme

B. Windows Saturation

C. Power schemes

D. Theme

Answer: D

A theme is a collection of visual elements and sounds for your computer desktop.

18. Where do you go to stop and disable a service?

A. Accessories

B. Administrative Tools

C. System Tools

D. System32 folder

Answer: B

Services are managed with the Services console, which is also part of the Computer Management console. Both of these are found in the Administrative Tools.

19. Where do you find the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security?

A. Administrative Tools

B. Registry Editor

C. Program Manager

D. File Manager

Answer: A

The Administrative Tools include the Computer Management console, Event Viewer, Local Security Policy, services console, Task Scheduler, and Windows Firewall with Advanced Security.

20. You have a new 5-GB hard drive. Which partitioning style do you have to use?





Answer: B

MBR and GPT are the two partitioning styles used in Windows 7. If you have a disk larger than 2 TB, you must use GPT

21. You just connected a large USB drive. You try to make it a dynamic disk, but the option is not available to you. What is the problem?

A. You don’t have the correct drive loaded.

B. The drive is disabled.

C. Dynamic disks are not supported on USB disks.

D. The drive needs to be powered on.

Answer: C

Dynamic disks are supported on SCSI, IDE, Fiber Channel, and Serial Storage Architecture (SSA). They are not supported on USB, Firewire/IEEE 1994, and removable disks.

22. You want Windows 7 to implement RAID 1. What do you need to do?

A. Enable Write caching on the first disk.

B. Enable Write Caching on the second disk.

C. Convert the basic disk to dynamic disks.

D. Convert the dynamic disk to basic disks.

Answer: C

RAID 1, or disk mirroring, needs two disks. In addition, both disks must be dynamic disks.

23. Where do you find the Disk Management console?

A. Control Panel

B. Computer Management console

C. Device Manager

D. Regedit

Answer: B

The Disk Management console is an MMC console that is included in the Computer Management console.

24. Which of the following gives you the best read access performance?

A. Simple disk

B. Spanned disk

C. Mirrored disk

D. Stripped disk

Answer: D

Stripped volumes can improve the speed of access to the disk because data is spread across multiple disks. However, it does not provide fault tolerance. If one disk fails, you lose the entire volume.

25. What is the default subnet mask for a host with the address of





Answer: C

The is a class C address. Therefore, the default subnet mask is

26. How many bits is an IPv4 address?

A. 4

B. 16

C. 24

D. 32

Answer: D

An IPv4 address is 32 bits. To make it easier to work with, it is usually expressed in four 8-bit octets, each octet ranging from 0 to 255 (an example is

27. What type of IPv6 address is used by hosts when communicating with neighboring hosts on the same link?

A. Global unicast addresses

B. Link-Local addresses

C. Unique local unicast addresses

D. Multicast addresses

Answer: B

Link-Local addresses are used by hosts when communicating with neighboring hosts on the same link. By using Link-Local addresses, you can have one network device communicate with another network to figure out its surrounding without any configuring.

28. What command is used to configure and monitor various network parameters on a computer running Windows 7 including configuring IP addresses and default gateways?

A. net

B. netsh

C. nslookup

D. ipconfig

Answer: B

The netsh command can be used to configure and monitor various networking parameters including configure IP addresses, default gateway, DNS servers, interfaces, routing protocols, and filters.

29. What command is used to test network connectivity to another host?

A. ipconfig

B. ping

C. nslookup

D. netstat

Answer: B

The ping command uses the ICMP protocol to verify connections to a remote host.

30. If you have a wireless access point configured to use Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) security and you are using digital certificates, which option should you choose to connect to the wireless access point?

A. WPA2-Enterprise

B. WPA2-Personal

C. WPA-Enterprise

D. WPA-Personal

Answer: A

WPA2 uses AES encryption. WPA-Enterprise uses digital certificates.

31. When connecting to a wireless network, what is used to identify the wireless network?




D. Digital certificate

Answer: B

The SSID, short for service set identifier, is a unique identifier attached to the header or packet sent over a wireless network.

32. Which VPN does Windows 7 NOT support?


B. IPSec with IPSec



Answer: D

Windows 7 supports PPTP, LTP with IPSec, SSTP, and IKEv2. Therefore, it does not support CISP.

33. When using authentication, which of the following authentication methods is the least secure?





Answer: A

PAP is short for Password Authentication Protocol, which sends the password in plain text (unencrypted).

34. What defines the type of access granted to an object or object attribute?

A. Permission

B. Right

C. Authentication key

D. Fingerprints

Answer: A

A permission defines the type of access granted to an object or object attribute. An object can be a file, folder, printer, or user account. An attribute might be a person’s phone number or address in the user account.

35. What feature helps prevent unauthorized changes to a computer running Windows 7 by a program?




D. ActiveX

Answer: A

User Account Control (UAC) is a feature that can help prevent unauthorized changes to your computer.

36. How do you enable auditing in Windows?

A. Modify the boot.ini file.

B. Open the System Properties through the Control Panel.

C. Use the Users console in the Control Panel.

D. Use group policies.

Answer: D

You can enable auditing in Windows using group policies including local policies.

37. What is the minimum standard NTFS permission to change permissions of a file or folder?

A. Full Control

B. Modify

C. Read

D. Write

Answer: A

To change permissions and take ownership, you need to have the Full Control permission.

38. When you move a file from a folder in the C drive to a folder in the D drive, which permissions does the file retain?

A. Permissions assigned to the source folder

B. Permissions assigned to the target folder

C. No permissions

D. Full permissions to Everyone

Answer: B

When you move from one drive to another, the file retains permissions assigned to the target folder.

39. You have several data folders on your computer running Windows 7. You would like to view them as one folder while still keeping them separate. What should you do?

A. Create a search connector.

B. Create a library.

C. Create an index.

D. Create a local profile.

Answer: B

Libraries are virtual folders that link two or more folders so that they can be viewed as one.

40. Which search tool is NOT a method for Windows 7 to search for files?

A. The search box on the Start menu

B. The search box located at the top of the open window

C. The search box at the top of the library

D. The search box in the desktop

Answer: D

Windows 7 has several ways to perform searches including the Start menu, open windows, and libraries.

41. What do you do to recover EFS encrypted files if the encryption key is lost or damaged?

A. Right-click the file and click recover.

B. Use an EFS Recovery Agent to update the encrypted file.

C. Convert to BitLocker.

D. Convert to BitLocker To Go.

Answer: B

A recovery certificate is a special Encrypting File System (EFS) certificate you can use to recover encrypted files if your encryption key is lost or damaged. You need to create the recovery certificate, install it, and then update previously encrypted files with the new recovery certificate.

42. You have a shared folder on an NTFS volume. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. A user who accesses the folder remotely has the same or more restrictive access permissions than if she accesses the folder locally.

B. A user who accesses the folder remotely has less restrictive access permissions than if she accesses the folder locally.

C. A user who accesses the folder remotely has the same access permissions than if she accesses the folder locally.

D. A user who accesses the folder remotely has more restrictive access permissions than if she accesses the folder locally.

Answer: A

When you access a computer remotely through the share, you include the share permissions and NTFS permissions that can restrict access. When you access the local folder directly, only the NTFS permissions apply. Therefore, they can have the same or more restrictive access if both are applied.

43. Which of the following is NOT a share permission for a standard shared folder in Windows 7?

A. Full Control

B. Change

C. Modify

D. Read

Answer: C

The three share permissions are Full Control, Change, and Read.

44. Which mode of BranchCache has the cache data reside on local clients at the remote site?

A. Distributed Cache

B. Hosted Cache

C. Proxy Cache

D. Link Cache

Answer: A

The BranchCache caches files on a remote site after it communicates with the central office so that it the future it can use the cache to provide without going to the central office. Distributed Cache is distributed across client computers in the branch.

45. What permission do you have to give for a user to change the configuration of a printer?

A. Allow Manage Printers

B. Allow Manage Documents

C. Allow Full Control for Documents

D. Allow Modify for Printers

Answer: A

The Allow Manage Printers allows you to modify printer settings and configuration including the ACL.

46. You add a printer directly to the network using a built-in Ethernet card. Now you want to load the printer onto your computer. Which of the following is true?

A. The printer is considered a local printer.

B. The printer is considered a network printer.

C. The printer needs to be moved so that it can be plugged directly into the Windows computer.

D. The printer needs to be assigned a name such as http://servername/printername.

Answer: A

When you connect to the network printer, you install the printer as a local printer and use the Create a New Port Wizard to create a standard TCP/IP port.

47. If you print a document and get garbled text, what is most likely the problem?

A. The print spooler becomes unresponsive.

B. The printer is not using the right ink-cartridge.

C. The printer has not been calibrated.

D. You are using the incorrect driver.

Answer: D

If you have the incorrect print driver, you get strange characters, garbled characters, or snippets of program code.

48. Which of the following is NOT a rule you can create with software restrictions?

A. Hash

B. Path

C. Certificates

D. Location

Answer: D

The four types of rules used with software restrictions include hash, certificate, path, and zone.

49. Where do you configure an individual application to run as an administrator?

A. Using local security policy

B. The System Configuration Tool

C. The Computer Management Tool

D. The Application Compatibility Options under the application properties

Answer: D

If you right-click the executable and select properties, you can select the Compatibility tab to configure what OS to run under, 256 colors, 640x480 resolution, and privilege level.

50. You have a website that appears not to display properly. What can you do for the website to display properly?

A. Enable an accelerator.

B. Enable a SmartScreen Filter.

C. Enable Compatibility Mode.

D. Enable a RSS feed.

Answer: C

Websites designed for earlier versions of Internet Explorer might not display correctly in the current version. Often, you can improve how a website looks in Internet Explorer by using Compatibility View.

51. You have a website that is too hard to read because it is too small. What can you do?

A. You need to decrease the screen resolution.

B. You need to increase the screen resolution.

C. You need to decrease the zoom level for the tab.

D. You need to increase the zoom level for the tab.

Answer: D

When you have trouble seeing a website because its content is too small, you can use the zoom feature.

52. Which of the following do you NOT find in the Mobility Center?

A. Volume

B. Presentation Settings

C. Display Settings

D. External Display

Answer: C

The Mobility Center includes Volume, Battery Status, Wireless Network, External Display, Sync Center, Presentation Settings, and Screen Rotation. Display Settings is not in the Mobility Center.

53. You are ready to give a presentation using your computer running PowerPoint. What should do you prepare your system for the presentation?

A. Create a second hardware profile, reboot the computer, and load the second hardware profile.

B. Shut off your e-mail messengers, change your volume control, change your screen, and disable the screen savers and sleep features.

C. Create a second user profile and configure the profile for presentations and logins as the user to give the presentation.

D. Configure your Presentation Settings and turn on Presentation Settings.

Answer: D

The best way to give presentations is to configure Presentation Settings with the Mobility Center and turn the Presentation Settings on when you are ready to give the presentation.

54. Which version of Windows 7 does NOT support Remote Desktop Hosting?

A. Windows 7 Home Premium

B. Windows 7 Professional

C. Windows 7 Ultimate

D. Windows 7 Enterprise

Answer: A

You cannot use Remote Desktop Connections to connect to computers running Windows 7 Starter, Windows 7 Home Basic, Windows 7 Home Premium, and you can only create outgoing connections from these editions of Windows 7. Only Windows 7 Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise editions support Remote Desktop Hosting.

55. To connect to a computer using Windows Remote Desktop, what group do you need to be a member of on the remote computer?

A. Guests

B. Power users

C. Remote Desktop Users

D. Power Users

Answer: C

All administrators are automatically given the necessary permission to use Windows Remote Desktop. For other users, you must add them to the Remote Desktop Users group.

56. Which technology is used to improve the performance of computers using a USB flash drive?

A. ReadyBoost

B. ReadyCache

C. ReadyDrive

D. ReadyUp

Answer: A

Windows ReadyBoost boosts system performance by using USB flash devices as additional sources for caching.

57. If you want to see if you are running out of physical memory, which counter should you use?

A. CPU utilization

B. Pages\sec

C. Network utilization

D. Interrupts\sec

Answer: B

To see how much paging takes place between RAM and the paging file, you use the pages\sec. A high value indicates that you need to utilize paging more often, which means you are running out of physical memory.

58. In Windows 7, what can be used to quickly determine if your antivirus is up to date and if Windows is patched?

A. Event Viewer

B. Action Center

C. Reliability Monitor

D. System Information

Answer: B

Action Center is a central place to view alerts and take actions that can help keep Windows running smoothly.

59. What tool can be used to thoroughly test memory?

A. Computer Management console

B. System Information

C. Memory Diagnostic Tool

D. Safe Mode

Answer: C

Windows 7 has multiple diagnostic tools including a Memory Diagnostic Tool and Network Diagnostic Tool.

60. What should you do if you made changes to the video refresh rate on your computer and the display does not work properly?

A. Run the SysEdit tool.

B. Reinstall Windows.

C. Reboot the system with the emergency repair disk.

D. Press the F8 key during the boot sequence, and select Last Known Good Configuration.

Answer: D

If you load a driver and your machine does not boot properly, you can access the advanced boot menu and try Last Known Good Configuration.

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1. Which edition of Windows includes DirectAccess and BranchCache?

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